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The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 MCQs | (Paper - 3)
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THE ENVIRONMENT (PROTECTION) ACT, 1986
ACT NO. 29 OF1986
1. If a person proves due diligence to prevent the offence, he is:
a. Still liable for imprisonment
b. Exempted from punishment under Section 15F
c. Required to pay double fine
d. Required to file an appeal
2. Penalty for non-payment of additional penalty can lead to:
a. Only fine
b. Imprisonment, fine, or both
c. Community service
d. Only warning
3. Section 15F provides protection to officers of a company if:
a. They were unaware of the offence and exercised all due diligence
b. They were on leave
c. The offence occurred outside India
d. They resigned immediately after the offence
4. Section 15F ensures:
a. Only companies are punished
b. Both companies and responsible individuals can be prosecuted
c. Only fines are levied
d. Offenders can appeal without paying penalty
5. Section 15F is linked with which earlier sections for penalty imposition?
a. Sections 10, 11, 12
b. Sections 14A, 14B, 15, 15A, 15B
c. Sections 5, 6, 7
d. Sections 16, 16A, 16B
6. Failure to pay penalty under Section 15F must occur within:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
7. Liability under Section 15F for company officers is independent of:
a. Company’s liability
b. Directors’ knowledge and due diligence
c. Central Government’s notification
d. Laboratory report
8. The key objective of Section 15F is to:
a. Penalize offenders while ensuring accountability of responsible persons in companies
b. Limit penalties to companies only
c. Avoid imprisonment in environmental offences
d. Transfer penalty funds to state government only
9. Section 16 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with:
a. Appointment of Government Analysts
b. Environmental Protection Fund
c. Penalty for contravention of sections 14A to 15B
d. Powers to take measures to protect environment
10. Who may establish the Environmental Protection Fund?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. National Green Tribunal
d. Any environmental NGO
11. How is the Environmental Protection Fund established?
a. By parliamentary enactment
b. By notification in the Official Gazette
c. By order of the Supreme Court
d. By a resolution of State Governments
12. Which of the following amounts is credited to the Fund?
a. Penalties imposed under Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and this Act
b. Fines imposed under criminal law
c. Taxes collected from industrial units
d. Donations from private individuals only
13. Interest or income received from investments of the Fund shall be:
a. Kept by the bank
b. Credited to the Fund
c. Distributed among polluting industries
d. Used to pay salaries of employees
14. The Fund can also receive:
a. Loans from World Bank only
b. Any other amount from prescribed sources
c. Donations from foreign countries only
d. Tax revenue from individuals
15. The Fund shall be applied for:
a. Building roads in industrial areas
b. Promotion of awareness, education, and research for protection of environment
c. Payment of electricity bills of industries
d. Salaries of private companies
16. The Fund may also be applied for:
a. Expenses for achieving the objects of this Act and Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
b. Funding political parties
c. Paying fines to foreign companies
d. Construction of private housing
17. Who is notified as the administrator of the Fund?
a. Any person selected by the State Government
b. Central Government in the manner prescribed
c. Chairman of the National Green Tribunal
d. Any NGO approved by the Central Government
18. What percentage of penalties credited to the Fund is allocated to State Governments or Union Territories?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 100%
19. Section 16 allows the Fund to be applied for:
a. Remedial measures for environmental pollution
b. Personal benefits of Government officers
c. Political campaigns
d. Private industrial development
20. The Fund is created primarily for:
a. Collecting penalties from industries only
b. Promotion of environmental protection, awareness, research, and compliance
c. Paying fines to the judiciary
d. Supporting trade associations
21. Can the Central Government prescribe other sources for crediting amounts to the Fund?
a. Yes, as per rules made under the Act
b. No, only penalties are allowed
c. Only foreign donations are allowed
d. Only State Government contributions are allowed
22. The Fund may be applied for purposes:
a. Specified under section 16(3)(c) as may be prescribed
b. Limited to enforcement of traffic rules
c. Funding private industrial projects
d. Financing political campaigns
23. The administrator of the Fund is responsible for:
a. Supervising the Fund and all connected matters
b. Collecting taxes from citizens
c. Funding foreign projects
d. Conducting elections
24. The Environmental Protection Fund is applicable to:
a. Whole of India
b. Only Delhi and Mumbai
c. Only industrial zones
d. Only State capitals
25. Interest earned from the Fund can be used for:
a. Any purpose as prescribed under the Act
b. Only salaries of company directors
c. Only foreign projects
d. Purchase of land for industrial purposes
26. Section 16 provides that the Fund can support:
a. Research relating to environmental pollution
b. Political campaigns
c. Sports activities in schools
d. Private industrial expansion
27. Allocation of penalties to States or Union Territories is meant for:
a. Environmental protection programs at State level
b. Personal benefits of officers
c. Funding political parties
d. Paying public debts
28. The Environmental Protection Fund under Section 16 can be established by:
a. Any NGO
b. Notification by the Central Government in the Official Gazette
c. Supreme Court order
d. Parliament only
29. Section 16A of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with:
a. Penalty for failure to pay
b. Accounts and audit of the Environmental Protection Fund
c. Appointment of adjudicating officers
d. Environmental standards for air and water
30. Who is responsible for maintaining separate accounts of the Environmental Protection Fund?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. National Green Tribunal
d. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
31. The Central Government prepares the annual statement of accounts in consultation with:
a. Ministry of Finance
b. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
c. State Pollution Control Boards
d. National Environmental Tribunal
32. What type of records shall be maintained by the Central Government under Section 16A?
a. Only cash receipts
b. Separate accounts and other relevant records of the Fund
c. Only reports of penalties collected
d. Only investment records
33. How often are the accounts of the Fund audited?
a. Once in ten years
b. At intervals specified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
c. Every month
d. Only when a complaint is filed
34. The audit of the Environmental Protection Fund is conducted by:
a. Ministry of Environment officers
b. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
c. National Green Tribunal
d. State Pollution Control Board
35. What happens after the accounts of the Fund are audited?
a. The Fund is closed for the year
b. Audited accounts together with the audit report are forwarded annually to the Central Government
c. Accounts are sent to the State Governments only
d. The accounts are published in the newspaper
36. Section 16A ensures that the Fund's accounts are:
a. Maintained in a secret manner
b. Transparent and subject to annual audit
c. Only accessible to private companies
d. Used for political purposes
37. Which of the following is true about the preparation of accounts under Section 16A?
a. Accounts are prepared without consultation
b. Accounts are prepared in such form as may be prescribed, in consultation with the CAG
c. Accounts are prepared by any NGO
d. Accounts are optional
38. The audit report under Section 16A is submitted:
a. To the Supreme Court
b. To the Central Government
c. Only to the National Green Tribunal
d. To the Parliament directly
39. Which authority specifies the intervals at which the Fund’s accounts are audited?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
d. National Green Tribunal
40. Section 16A applies to:
a. Only penalties collected under Air Act, 1981
b. Environmental Protection Fund established under Section 16
c. All taxes collected by the government
d. Only private companies paying fines
41. What is the primary objective of Section 16A?
a. To monitor pollution in industries
b. To maintain proper accounts and ensure audit of the Environmental Protection Fund
c. To levy penalties on defaulters
d. To establish environmental laboratories
42. The annual statement of accounts includes:
a. Only penalties received
b. All receipts, payments, investments, and other relevant records of the Fund
c. Only salary expenditure
d. Only reports of environmental impact
43. The consultation for preparing accounts under Section 16A is with:
a. Finance Secretary
b. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
c. State Pollution Control Board
d. National Green Tribunal
44. Why are the accounts of the Environmental Protection Fund audited?
a. To ensure transparency and accountability in the use of the Fund
b. To calculate taxes on companies
c. To provide salaries to officers
d. To support private projects
45. The Central Government maintains accounts in consultation with CAG to:
a. Avoid legal scrutiny
b. Ensure compliance with prescribed forms and audit standards
c. Reduce penalties on industries
d. Fund political campaigns
46. The audited accounts of the Fund are forwarded:
a. Monthly
b. Annually
c. Once every five years
d. Only on demand by CAG
47. Section 16A is linked with which other section of the Act?
a. Section 14
b. Section 16 – Environmental Protection Fund
c. Section 7 – Emission standards
d. Section 5 – Directions
48. Who can inspect the accounts maintained under Section 16A?
a. Any citizen
b. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India and Central Government
c. State Government only
d. National Green Tribunal only
49. What is the main subject of Section 16B of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. Penalty for contravention
b. Annual report by Central Government
c. Power to make rules
d. Constitution of Environment Tribunal
50. Under Section 16B, who is responsible for preparing the annual report in relation to the Environmental Protection Fund?
a. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
b. Central Government
c. State Pollution Control Board
d. Supreme Court
51. What must the annual report under Section 16B contain?
a. Only the financial transactions of the Fund
b. Full account of activities defined under the Act
c. List of all environmental violations
d. Recommendations for policy amendments
52. For which period should the Central Government prepare the annual report under Section 16B?
a. Current financial year
b. Previous financial year
c. Next financial year
d. Last five years
53. In what form should the annual report be prepared as per Section 16B?
a. As decided by Parliament
b. As may be prescribed
c. As directed by State Governments
d. No specific form required
54. To whom must the annual report under Section 16B be laid before?
a. Only Lok Sabha
b. Only Rajya Sabha
c. Both Houses of Parliament
d. Prime Minister
55. Along with the annual report, what other document must be presented as per Section 16B?
a. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Audit report by Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
c. Annual report of State Pollution Boards
d. Recommendations by Ministry of Environment
56. Which Fund’s activities are accounted for in the Section 16B annual report?
a. National Disaster Response Fund
b. Environmental Protection Fund
c. Clean Ganga Fund
d. Green India Fund
57. Section 16B ensures accountability in relation to:
a. Pollution control measures
b. Environmental Protection Fund activities
c. State Government environmental programs
d. Private sector environmental initiatives
58. Who audits the Environmental Protection Fund as per Section 16B?
a. Ministry of Finance
b. Central Pollution Control Board
c. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
d. State Auditors
59. Which of the following is true under Section 16B?
a. The report is confidential and not laid before Parliament
b. The Central Government may choose not to include activities in the report
c. The annual report must be laid before Parliament along with audit report
d. Only financial details are reported
60. Section 16B of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, primarily promotes:
a. Environmental litigation
b. Transparency and accountability of the Environmental Protection Fund
c. Criminal penalties for pollution
d. Setting up State Environmental Tribunals
61. The Comptroller and Auditor-General’s report under Section 16B serves to:
a. Review environmental policies
b. Audit the financial transactions of the Environmental Protection Fund
c. Issue guidelines to industries
d. Monitor pollution levels
62. Section 16B mandates reporting by the Central Government for which type of fund?
a. Any government fund
b. Environmental Protection Fund
c. State Disaster Relief Fund
d. National Health Fund
63. The purpose of laying the annual report before Parliament as per Section 16B is to:
a. Ensure legal enforcement of environmental laws
b. Facilitate Parliamentary oversight of the Environmental Protection Fund
c. Punish violators of environmental norms
d. Conduct environmental audits at the state level
64. What is the main purpose of Section 18 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. To impose penalties for violations of environmental laws
b. To provide legal protection for actions taken in good faith under the Act
c. To establish environmental courts
d. To mandate environmental reporting
65. Who is protected under Section 18 from suits or legal proceedings?
a. Only the Central Government
b. Government officers and employees, authorities constituted under the Act, and their members, officers, or employees
c. Private companies complying with environmental laws
d. State governments only
66. Under Section 18, protection is granted for actions done or intended to be done:
a. With negligence
b. In good faith
c. With monetary gain
d. In contravention of the Act
67. Section 18 ensures that no legal proceedings can be initiated against which of the following?
a. Environmental activists
b. Private individuals violating environmental norms
c. Government officers acting in good faith under the Act
d. Polluting industries
68. Which of the following is included in the term “good faith” under Section 18?
a. Honest and sincere actions under the Act or rules
b. Any action to avoid penalties
c. Acts performed for personal gain
d. Actions contrary to orders of the Government
69. Section 18 protects against which types of legal actions?
a. Only civil suits
b. Only criminal prosecutions
c. Suits, prosecutions, or other legal proceedings
d. Only disciplinary actions
70. Which authority’s members or employees are protected under Section 18?
a. Only Central Government authorities
b. Only State Pollution Control Boards
c. Any authority constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act
d. Only municipal authorities
71. The protection under Section 18 applies to actions done in pursuance of:
a. Only the Act itself
b. The Act, rules made under it, and orders or directions issued thereunder
c. Any environmental guideline issued by the Supreme Court
d. Voluntary environmental initiatives
72. Can a government officer be held legally liable for an honest mistake while acting in good faith under Section 18?
a. Yes, always
b. No, protection is granted for good faith actions
c. Only if the mistake causes major damage
d. Only if directed by a private authority
73. Section 18 promotes which principle in administrative actions under environmental law?
a. Strict liability
b. Legal immunity for private entities
c. Protection for honest actions taken in good faith
d. Criminal liability for errors
74. Which of the following is NOT protected under Section 18?
a. A government officer following the Act sincerely
b. A member of an authority constituted under the Act acting in good faith
c. A private citizen polluting a river intentionally
d. An employee of an authority acting under government directions
75. Section 18 ensures that government authorities can act without fear of:
a. Environmental degradation
b. Legal consequences for actions taken in good faith
c. International criticism
d. Public opinion
76. Which of the following actions qualifies for protection under Section 18?
a. Deliberate violation of environmental norms
b. Following an order under the Act sincerely
c. Ignoring environmental rules for personal profit
d. Refusing to implement the Act
77. Why is Section 18 important for the functioning of the Environment (Protection) Act?
a. It allows officers to act quickly without fear of litigation
b. It enforces heavy penalties for violations
c. It replaces State pollution laws
d. It establishes courts for environmental crimes
78. Section 18 applies to:
a. Only actions after obtaining a court order
b. Actions done or intended to be done in good faith under the Act
c. Any government action outside the scope of the Act
d. Actions of private companies under corporate law
79. The phrase “intended to be done in good faith” in Section 18 means:
a. Only completed actions are protected
b. Even actions planned but not yet executed in good faith are protected
c. Only actions approved by the Parliament
d. Only actions without any financial implications
80. Which of these bodies is explicitly protected under Section 18?
a. Private environmental NGOs
b. Any authority constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act
c. State legislatures
d. Private corporations
81. The protection under Section 18 can be considered a safeguard for:
a. Judicial officers
b. Environmental administrators
c. Private industrialists
d. Media reporting environmental issues
82. Section 18 ensures that officials can act in good faith without the fear of:
a. Being audited
b. Facing personal lawsuits or prosecutions
c. Implementing policies
d. Reporting environmental statistics
83. Which of the following is a key limitation of Section 18?
a. It protects only good faith actions, not willful negligence or misconduct
b. It exempts private companies from penalties
c. It allows violation of environmental standards
d. It removes parliamentary oversight
84. What is the primary purpose of Section 19 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. To impose penalties for environmental violations
b. To regulate industrial pollution
c. To specify how courts can take cognizance of offences under the Act
d. To establish environmental tribunals
85. According to Section 19, a court can take cognizance of an offence only on a complaint made by:
a. Any citizen of India
b. The Central Government or an authorised authority/officer
c. Any private company
d. State Pollution Control Board only
86. Under Section 19, what is the minimum notice period a person must give before making a complaint?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
87. Who can give notice to the Central Government under Section 19 before filing a complaint?
a. Any person alleging an offence under the Act
b. Only government officers
c. State environmental authorities
d. Industrial associations
88. The notice under Section 19 must be given in:
a. Any manner the complainant chooses
b. The manner prescribed under the Act
c. Only by email
d. Only orally in court
89. Section 19 was amended to include which additional authority in making complaints?
a. State Pollution Control Boards
b. Adjudicating officer or any officer authorised by him
c. Private environmental organizations
d. Municipal authorities
90. Why does Section 19 require a 60-day notice before a complaint?
a. To allow the accused to respond or remedy the violation
b. To increase penalties
c. To bypass the Central Government
d. To involve international agencies
91. Can a court take cognizance of an offence under the Act on its own?
a. Yes, always
b. No, only on a complaint as per Section 19
c. Yes, if the public demands
d. No, unless the State Government permits
92. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 19?
a. Any citizen can immediately file a complaint without notice
b. Only complaints from the Central Government or authorised officers are valid
c. The court can act suo motu in any case
d. Notice period is not required for private complaints
93. The role of an adjudicating officer under Section 19(aa) is to:
a. Investigate offences and issue direct penalties
b. File complaints on behalf of the government or authority
c. Pass judicial verdicts in environmental cases
d. Monitor pollution levels in industries
94. If a person fails to give 60 days’ notice before making a complaint, the court:
a. Can still take cognizance
b. Cannot take cognizance
c. Can reduce the notice period
d. Can refer the case to the Supreme Court
95. Section 19 ensures that:
a. Courts do not take cognizance without government oversight or proper notice
b. Any citizen can file instant complaints
c. Private companies are exempt from penalties
d. Environmental NGOs can directly prosecute
96. Who is responsible for authorising officers to file complaints under Section 19?
a. State Governments
b. Central Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Ministry of Finance
97. Section 19 promotes which principle in environmental enforcement?
a. Public-private partnership
b. Procedural safeguard and fairness before legal action
c. Strict liability for all citizens
d. Summary trials without notice
98. Which of the following is NOT required under Section 19 before filing a complaint?
a. Notice of 60 days to Central Government or authorised officer
b. Complaint by Central Government, authorised officer, or adjudicating officer
c. Court approval before notice
d. Specifying alleged offence and intention to make complaint
99. The “authority or officer authorised” under Section 19 refers to:
a. Only State authorities
b. Any officer authorised by the Central Government for filing complaints under the Act
c. Private consultants
d. Environmental NGOs
100. Section 19 applies to offences under:
a. Only rules made by the State Government
b. The Environment (Protection) Act and rules made under it
c. Any industrial law
d. Only Water and Air Acts
101. Why does Section 19 include adjudicating officers in filing complaints?
a. To decentralize enforcement and allow administrative officers to initiate complaints
b. To reduce penalties
c. To allow citizens to bypass government approval
d. To promote private litigation
102. Section 19 protects courts from taking cognizance without:
a. Government consent or prescribed notice
b. Written approval from the President
c. Public interest litigation
d. Supreme Court direction
103. The notice required under Section 19 must include:
a. Only the name of the complainant
b. Alleged offence and intention to make a complaint
c. Penalty demanded
d. List of witnesses
104. What is the main objective of Section 20 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. To impose penalties for non-compliance
b. To allow the Central Government to require information, reports, or returns from various entities
c. To establish environmental courts
d. To regulate industrial production
105. Who can be required to furnish reports, returns, statistics, accounts, or other information under Section 20?
a. Only government officers
b. Any person, officer, State Government, or other authority
c. Only private companies
d. Only the judiciary
106. Under Section 20, who has the authority to require information?
a. Only the Supreme Court
b. The Central Government or any prescribed authority or officer
c. State Governments independently
d. Environmental NGOs
107. What must a person, officer, State Government, or authority do if asked for information under Section 20?
a. Furnish it voluntarily only if convenient
b. Furnish it compulsorily as they are bound to do so
c. Ignore the request if it is confidential
d. Refer the request to the Supreme Court
108. Section 20 of the Act primarily ensures:
a. Transparency and accountability in environmental administration
b. Criminal liability for officers
c. Reduction in environmental reporting
d. Private sector autonomy
109. Which of the following can be requested under Section 20?
a. Reports and returns
b. Statistics and accounts
c. Other information related to functions under the Act
d. All of the above
110. Section 20 empowers the Central Government to obtain information for:
a. Personal use
b. Functions under the Environment (Protection) Act
c. Tax collection purposes
d. Private industrial audits
111. If a State Government fails to furnish information under Section 20, it:
a. Can be penalized under the Act
b. Is bound to comply as per law
c. Can ignore the requirement
d. Can delay indefinitely without consequence
112. Which of the following is NOT included in the information required under Section 20?
a. Reports and returns
b. Statistics and accounts
c. Classified government secrets unrelated to environmental functions
d. Other information relevant to the Act
113. Who can be a “prescribed authority or officer” under Section 20?
a. Any officer designated by the Central Government through rules or notifications
b. Only judicial officers
c. Only private auditors
d. Any citizen
114. The term “bound to do so” in Section 20 implies:
a. Furnishing information is optional
b. Furnishing information is mandatory
c. Furnishing information can be refused on personal grounds
d. Furnishing information can be delayed without reason
115. Section 20 ensures that:
a. Environmental enforcement is based on proper information and data
b. Courts take cognizance of offences
c. Private companies are free from reporting
d. NGOs can investigate independently
116. Can a private company be required to furnish information under Section 20?
a. No, only government bodies
b. Yes, if it relates to functions under the Act
c. Only if it is a multinational corporation
d. No, companies are exempt
117. Section 20 promotes which principle in environmental governance?
a. Strict liability
b. Transparency and information availability
c. Public-private partnership
d. Discretionary compliance
118. Under Section 20, the information can be requested:
a. Only once during a year
b. From time to time as deemed necessary by the Central Government
c. Only after court approval
d. Only through public notice
119. Which of the following entities cannot ignore a request under Section 20?
a. State Government
b. Local authorities
c. Private industry related to environmental compliance
d. All of the above
120. The phrase “in relation to its functions under this Act” in Section 20 implies:
a. Information unrelated to the Act can also be demanded
b. Only information relevant to the Act’s functions is required
c. Information about personal matters can be demanded
d. Any corporate data can be demanded
121. Section 20 can be used to obtain:
a. Annual reports from industries
b. Statistics on pollution levels
c. Accounts of environmental projects
d. All of the above
122. Why is Section 20 crucial for the Central Government?
a. It enables proper monitoring and enforcement of environmental laws
b. It allows the government to impose penalties directly
c. It replaces the need for State Pollution Control Boards
d. It allows private citizens to enforce environmental laws
123. Section 20 can be categorized under:
a. Penal provisions
b. Reporting and information provisions
c. Enforcement by courts
d. Criminal liability provisions
124. What is the main purpose of Section 21 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. To impose penalties on polluting industries
b. To declare members, officers, and employees of authorities under Section 3 as public servants
c. To establish environmental courts
d. To allow private companies to monitor environmental compliance
125. Who is covered under Section 21 as public servants?
a. Members of authorities constituted under Section 3
b. Officers and employees of such authorities
c. Both a and b when acting in pursuance of the Act, rules, or directions
d. Only government ministers
126. Under Section 21, members and officers are deemed public servants for:
a. All actions in personal capacity
b. Actions done or purported to be done under the Act, rules, or directions
c. Any work in other government departments
d. Actions unrelated to environmental protection
127. Section 21 refers to which section of the Indian Penal Code for defining public servants?
a. Section 17
b. Section 19
c. Section 21
d. Section 25
128. Why are members and officers of authorities under Section 3 deemed public servants?
a. To give them immunity from prosecution
b. To bring their actions under criminal law for accountability
c. To allow them to act independently of the law
d. To enable them to manage private funds
129. Which of the following is TRUE under Section 21?
a. Only officers are public servants, not members
b. Members, officers, and employees are public servants only while acting under the Act or rules
c. They are public servants even in personal matters
d. Private employees of industrial units are included
130. Section 21 applies to employees of:
a. Authorities constituted under Section 3 of the Act
b. Private corporations implementing environmental projects
c. NGOs conducting environmental awareness campaigns
d. Municipal corporations only
131. Being deemed a public servant under Section 21 implies:
a. They are immune from any criminal law
b. Their actions are subject to Indian Penal Code provisions regarding public servants
c. They can ignore government directions
d. They can work without accountability
132. Section 21 ensures accountability for:
a. Private companies
b. Government authorities and their members/employees acting under the Act
c. Environmental NGOs
d. State governments alone
133. The phrase “purporting to act” in Section 21 means:
a. Only actions actually done under the Act
b. Even actions claimed to be under the Act, whether fully authorized or not
c. Only voluntary actions outside the Act
d. Actions unrelated to the authority
134. What is the significance of Section 21 for members of authorities under Section 3?
a. They gain immunity from civil liability
b. Their actions are considered official and accountable as public servants under IPC
c. They can act without following rules
d. They can act independently of the Central Government
135. Under Section 21, the term “authority constituted under Section 3” refers to:
a. Central Government itself
b. Any body established under Section 3 to exercise powers under the Act
c. State governments exclusively
d. Private consultancy bodies
136. Section 21 primarily relates to:
a. Reporting obligations
b. Criminal accountability of officials as public servants
c. Financial audit of environmental funds
d. Environmental education programs
137. Which of the following is NOT true under Section 21?
a. Members of authorities are public servants when acting under the Act
b. Employees are public servants while following directions under the Act
c. Private citizens working voluntarily under the authority are public servants
d. Actions must be in pursuance of the Act, rules, or directions
138. Section 21 brings members, officers, and employees under:
a. Environmental Tribunal jurisdiction only
b. Indian Penal Code provisions relating to public servants
c. Local government rules only
d. Civil liability provisions only
139. “Deemed to be public servants” under Section 21 implies:
a. They are officially recognized as public servants only for acts under the Act
b. They are always considered public servants in all matters
c. They cannot be prosecuted
d. They can issue orders to the public without accountability
140. Section 21 ensures that:
a. Only financial misconduct can be punished
b. Members, officers, and employees are accountable for their official actions under the Act
c. Members cannot be sued under IPC
d. Private entities are held accountable as public servants
141. The legal effect of Section 21 is:
a. Members and employees can ignore IPC provisions
b. They are protected from civil liability only
c. Their actions are covered under criminal law for public servants under IPC
d. It replaces Section 21 IPC
142. Section 21 applies when the authority’s members, officers, or employees:
a. Act in personal matters unrelated to the Act
b. Act in pursuance of the provisions of the Act, rules, orders, or directions
c. Only issue administrative guidelines
d. Only work in financial matters
143. The purpose of declaring them public servants under Section 21 is to:
a. Provide legal immunity
b. Enable prosecution for misconduct or corruption under IPC provisions
c. Increase their salary
d. Remove accountability
144. What is the main objective of Section 22 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. To provide civil remedies against the government
b. To bar civil courts from entertaining suits or proceedings regarding actions under the Act
c. To impose penalties on polluters
d. To establish environmental tribunals
145. Section 22 states that no civil court shall have jurisdiction over:
a. Actions taken by private companies
b. Anything done, action taken, or order/direction issued by the Central Government or authorised officers under the Act
c. State government environmental policies
d. Environmental NGO interventions
146. Which type of court is specifically barred under Section 22?
a. Criminal courts
b. Civil courts
c. Supreme Court
d. Environmental tribunals
147. The bar of jurisdiction under Section 22 applies to actions taken:
a. Only by the Central Government
b. By the Central Government, any authority, or officer in pursuance of powers under the Act
c. By private citizens
d. By State Pollution Control Boards only
148. Section 22 ensures that:
a. Environmental authorities can act without fear of civil litigation
b. Officers are immune from criminal prosecution
c. Civil courts can review government orders
d. Private companies are free from reporting requirements
149. Which of the following is NOT covered by Section 22?
a. Actions taken in pursuance of the Act
b. Orders issued by authorised officers
c. Personal actions of government officers outside the Act
d. Directions issued under the Act
150. Section 22 promotes:
a. Public-private partnership in environmental governance
b. Uninterrupted exercise of powers by the Central Government and authorities under the Act
c. Private litigation against environmental authorities
d. Judicial review of all government actions
151. Which of the following statements is TRUE under Section 22?
a. Civil courts can entertain suits challenging orders issued by environmental authorities
b. Civil courts cannot entertain suits against acts done under powers conferred by the Act
c. Section 22 removes criminal liability of officers
d. Section 22 applies only to private corporations
152. Section 22 applies to:
a. Only orders of the Central Government
b. Anything done, action taken, or order/direction issued by the Central Government, authority, or officer under the Act
c. Only civil disputes between private parties
d. Actions outside the scope of the Act
153. The primary legal effect of Section 22 is:
a. Granting immunity from criminal prosecution
b. Excluding civil courts from jurisdiction over official acts under the Act
c. Allowing private citizens to challenge government orders in civil court
d. Establishing financial penalties for environmental violations
154. Section 22 can be seen as a safeguard to:
a. Prevent interference by civil litigation in administrative functions under the Act
b. Limit the powers of the Central Government
c. Allow NGOs to file suits against authorities
d. Give civil courts supervisory powers
155. Can criminal courts entertain cases against government officers for acts under the Act despite Section 22?
a. Yes, Section 22 bars only civil courts
b. No, criminal courts are also barred
c. Only if the officer is a public servant
d. Only with Supreme Court approval
156. Section 22 applies when the actions are:
a. Done outside the authority of the Act
b. Taken in pursuance of powers under the Act
c. Done for personal reasons unrelated to the Act
d. Only financial transactions
157. Which of the following authorities are protected under Section 22?
a. Only Central Government
b. Central Government, any authority constituted under the Act, and any officer
c. Only State Pollution Control Boards
d. Private environmental consultants
158. Section 22 ensures that:
a. Civil courts can pass injunctions against environmental authorities
b. Administrative authorities can function efficiently without civil litigation interference
c. Criminal liability is abolished for officers
d. Environmental orders are subject to routine civil review
159. The bar of jurisdiction under Section 22 is intended to:
a. Limit private litigation that may obstruct environmental actions
b. Grant absolute immunity for officials
c. Replace the need for compliance with rules
d. Allow civil courts to supervise environmental projects
160. Which type of cases cannot be filed under Section 22?
a. Suits regarding acts done in personal capacity
b. Suits against official actions, orders, or directions under the Act
c. Criminal complaints
d. Administrative appeals
161. Section 22 strengthens:
a. Judicial review powers
b. Administrative efficiency of environmental authorities
c. Public participation in litigation
d. NGO regulatory powers
162. If a person wants to challenge an order issued under the Act, Section 22 implies they:
a. Must approach civil courts
b. Cannot approach civil courts but may seek relief through other legal remedies or tribunals
c. Can file a civil suit immediately
d. Must file a criminal complaint
163. Section 22 protects:
a. Private companies from litigation
b. Central Government and authorised officers from civil court interference while exercising powers under the Act
c. Only financial transactions
d. Civil courts from hearing any case
164. What is the main purpose of Section 23 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. To impose penalties on polluting industries
b. To empower the Central Government to delegate its powers under the Act
c. To establish environmental courts
d. To regulate State Government finances
165. How can the Central Government delegate its powers under Section 23?
a. Orally, during meetings
b. By notification in the Official Gazette
c. Through informal letters to officers
d. Via media announcement
166. To whom can the Central Government delegate its powers under Section 23?
a. Only officers of the Central Government
b. Any officer, State Government, or other authority
c. Only State Pollution Control Boards
d. Private environmental organizations
167. Which powers cannot be delegated under Section 23?
a. Powers to enforce environmental standards
b. Power to constitute an authority under sub-section (3) of Section 3 and to make rules under Section 25
c. Power to monitor pollution
d. Powers to collect environmental data
168. Section 23 allows delegation:
a. With no conditions or limitations
b. Subject to conditions and limitations specified in the notification
c. Only to private companies
d. Without any official notification
169. Section 23 ensures that delegation of powers:
a. Reduces the Central Government’s accountability
b. Facilitates efficient administration of the Act
c. Allows private NGOs to exercise powers
d. Eliminates the need for State Governments’ involvement
170. Section 23 applies without prejudice to which section?
a. Section 18
b. Sub-section (3) of Section 3
c. Section 25
d. Section 21
171. Why is delegation under Section 23 necessary?
a. To allow State Governments and officers to exercise powers for effective implementation
b. To reduce environmental standards
c. To avoid accountability
d. To empower private companies
172. What is the legal effect of a notification under Section 23?
a. It automatically makes private companies public authorities
b. It legally delegates specified powers and functions under the Act to the notified officer or authority
c. It suspends the Act in certain areas
d. It grants immunity from prosecution
173. Which of the following is TRUE under Section 23?
a. Central Government can delegate rule-making powers under Section 25
b. Central Government can delegate powers to any officer, State Government, or authority except rule-making and constituting authorities
c. Delegation requires prior approval from the Supreme Court
d. Only State Governments can be delegated powers
174. Section 23 enables delegation of powers:
a. Only for financial matters
b. Only for administrative and functional powers under the Act
c. Only to private companies
d. Only for legal representation in courts
175. A delegation under Section 23 must be:
a. Oral
b. Through a notification specifying conditions and limitations
c. Only recorded in internal files
d. Approved by the High Court
176. Which of the following cannot be delegated under Section 23?
a. Power to issue environmental directions
b. Power to constitute an authority under sub-section (3) of Section 3
c. Power to monitor industrial compliance
d. Power to collect environmental data
177. Delegation under Section 23 helps in:
a. Reducing the powers of the Central Government entirely
b. Improving efficiency and timely implementation of the Act
c. Allowing private companies to enforce environmental rules
d. Removing accountability of officers
178. Section 23 emphasizes that delegation is subject to:
a. Approval from civil courts
b. Conditions and limitations specified in the notification
c. No legal requirements
d. Public opinion
179. Which of the following is included in powers that can be delegated under Section 23?
a. Making rules under Section 25
b. Constituting authorities under Section 3(3)
c. Powers for enforcement, inspection, and administration under the Act
d. Amending the Act
180. Delegation under Section 23 is:
a. Mandatory for all powers
b. Optional, as deemed necessary or expedient by the Central Government
c. Required to be approved by Parliament
d. Limited only to financial powers
181. Which official publication is used to notify delegation under Section 23?
a. State Gazette
b. Official Gazette of India
c. Local newspapers
d. Central Government website only
182. Section 23 ensures:
a. Delegation of all powers including rule-making
b. Delegation of powers except rule-making and authority constitution
c. Central Government cannot delegate any powers
d. Delegation is permanent and unconditional
183. Why does Section 23 specifically exclude powers under Section 3(3) and Section 25 from delegation?
a. Because these powers are central to constituting authorities and rule-making, which require Central Government control
b. To allow State Governments to exercise them
c. To allow NGOs to exercise them
d. To remove accountability
184. What is the main purpose of Section 24 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a. To limit the applicability of the Act
b. To make the provisions of this Act prevail over any inconsistent law
c. To establish environmental courts
d. To delegate powers to State Governments
185. Section 24 states that the provisions of the Act, rules, or orders shall have effect:
a. Only if consistent with other laws
b. Notwithstanding anything inconsistent in any other law for the time being in force
c. Only with prior parliamentary approval
d. Only at the discretion of the State Government
186. The effect of Section 24 is to:
a. Ensure that environmental protection laws have overriding effect
b. Limit the powers of the Central Government
c. Exempt private companies from environmental compliance
d. Nullify State laws entirely
187. Which of the following does Section 24 cover?
a. Only the Act itself
b. The Act, rules, or orders made thereunder
c. Only executive orders
d. Only State legislation
188. Section 24 is an example of which legal principle?
a. Doctrine of Res Judicata
b. Doctrine of Overriding Effect / Non-obstante clause
c. Doctrine of Severability
d. Doctrine of Ultra Vires
189. The term “notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith” in Section 24 means:
a. The Act applies only if other laws permit
b. The Act prevails over any other law that conflicts with it
c. Civil courts can ignore the Act
d. It is optional for authorities to follow the Act
190. Section 24 applies to which types of laws?
a. Only State laws
b. Only Central laws
c. Any other law for the time being in force
d. Only civil laws
191. Why was Section 24 included in the Act?
a. To give the Act supremacy over inconsistent legal provisions
b. To allow private companies to avoid environmental compliance
c. To limit Central Government powers
d. To delegate rule-making powers
192. Which of the following statements is TRUE under Section 24?
a. The Act cannot override other laws
b. The Act, rules, and orders prevail even if other laws conflict
c. Only civil courts are affected
d. State governments can nullify the Act
193. Section 24 ensures:
a. Conflicts between environmental laws and other laws are resolved in favour of the Act
b. Private citizens are exempt from environmental rules
c. Environmental rules are subordinate to industrial laws
d. Civil courts have unlimited jurisdiction
194. The legal effect of Section 24 is:
a. It allows authorities to ignore other laws entirely
b. It establishes the overriding effect of the Act over inconsistent provisions
c. It suspends all State legislation indefinitely
d. It requires court approval to implement
195. Section 24 is often referred to as a:
a. Delegation clause
b. Non-obstante clause
c. Penal clause
d. Reporting clause
196. Section 24 prevents:
a. Civil court intervention in enforcement
b. Other laws from limiting the powers and provisions of the Act
c. Delegation of powers
d. Parliamentary amendments
197. Which of the following is consistent with Section 24?
a. If a State law allows certain pollution, but the Act prohibits it, the Act will prevail
b. If a private law conflicts, it automatically overrides the Act
c. The Act cannot interfere with older laws
d. Only international laws are affected
198. Section 24 applies even if:
a. Other laws were enacted before or after this Act
b. Only civil matters are involved
c. The State Government disapproves
d. The Supreme Court passes a contrary order
199. The effect of Section 24 is crucial for:
a. Ensuring the supremacy of environmental protection provisions
b. Limiting Central Government powers
c. Allowing exceptions for industries
d. Reducing environmental accountability
200. Section 24 prevents which of the following situations?
a. Conflicting provisions of different laws weakening environmental enforcement
b. Delegation of powers
c. Appointment of environmental officers
d. Criminal liability for pollution
201. Section 24 applies to:
a. Only Central Government rules
b. Only environmental authorities
c. All provisions of the Act, rules, or orders made thereunder
d. Only industrial laws
202. Section 24 can be seen as giving the Act:
a. Partial effect over other laws
b. Full overriding effect over inconsistent legal provisions
c. No effect over State laws
d. Effect only for civil matters
203. Section 24 supports which of the following principles?
a. Supremacy of environmental law over conflicting provisions of other laws
b. Civil court supremacy
c. Delegation of environmental powers to private citizens
d. Limitation of Central Government powers
204. What is the main objective of Section 25?
a. To allow State Governments to make rules
b. To empower the Central Government to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Act
c. To delegate powers to private agencies
d. To impose penalties on polluting industries
205. How can the Central Government make rules under Section 25?
a. Orally
b. By notification in the Official Gazette
c. Through letters
d. By parliamentary resolution only
206. Clause (a) deals with:
a. Procedures for handling hazardous substances
b. Standards for environmental pollutants under Section 7
c. Laboratory procedures
d. Adjudication of penalties
207. Clause (b) relates to:
a. Environmental pollutant discharge
b. Procedures and safeguards for handling hazardous substances under Section 8
c. Submission of reports under Section 20
d. Notice of offences
208. Clause (c) provides for:
a. Authorities or agencies to be intimated in case of excess discharge of pollutants under Section 9
b. Administration of Fund
c. Penalty determination
d. Laboratory reports
209. Clause (d) refers to:
a. Laboratory functions
b. Manner of taking samples of air, water, soil, or other substances for analysis under Section 11
c. Annual report of Fund
d. Qualifications of analysts
210. Clause (e) prescribes:
a. Form of notice of intention to have a sample analyzed under Section 11(3)(a)
b. Handling hazardous substances
c. Administration of Fund
d. Standards of pollutants
211. Clause (f) provides rules regarding:
a. Laboratory functions, submission procedures, form of report, fees, and other related matters under Section 12
b. Handling hazardous substances
c. Standards of pollutants
d. Authority receiving reports under Section 20
212. Clause (g) refers to:
a. Qualifications of Government Analysts for sample analysis under Section 13
b. Standards of pollutants
c. Adjudicating officer procedures
d. Administration of Fund
213. Clause (ga) deals with:
a. Administration of Fund
b. Manner of holding inquiry and imposing penalty by the adjudicating officer under Section 15C
c. Laboratory procedures
d. Annual report form
214. Clause (gb) refers to:
a. Other amounts under Section 16(2)(c)
b. Administration of Fund
c. Standards of pollutants
d. Penalty procedures
215. Clause (gc) prescribes:
a. Other purposes under Section 16(3)(c)
b. Laboratory reports
c. Manner of taking samples
d. Notice of offences
216. Clause (gd) deals with:
a. Administration of Environmental Protection Fund under Section 16(4)
b. Laboratory functions
c. Penalty procedures
d. Standards of pollutants
217. Clause (ge) prescribes:
a. Form for maintenance of accounts of Fund and annual statement under Section 16A
b. Form of laboratory report
c. Manner of issuing notices under Section 19
d. Standards of pollutants
218. Clause (gf) refers to:
a. Form for preparing annual report of Fund under Section 16B
b. Laboratory submission procedures
c. Penalty determination
d. Standards for pollutants
219. Clause (h) provides rules regarding:
a. Manner of giving notice of offence and intention to make complaint under Section 19
b. Administration of Fund
c. Laboratory procedures
d. Standards of pollutants
220. Clause (i) deals with:
a. Authority or officer to whom reports, returns, statistics, accounts, or other information shall be furnished under Section 20
b. Laboratory fees
c. Administration of Fund
d. Standards for pollutants
221. Clause (j) allows:
a. Any other matter required to be, or may be, prescribed under the Act
b. Rule-making by State Governments
c. Delegation of powers under Section 3
d. Exemption of industries from compliance
222. Which clause deals with laboratory functions, including submission, report, and fees?
a. Clause (d)
b. Clause (f)
c. Clause (g)
d. Clause (h)
223. The rules under Clause (b) aim to ensure:
a. Safe handling of hazardous substances and compliance with safeguards
b. Reporting of offences
c. Administration of Fund
d. Laboratory report format
224. Clause (ga) ensures that penalties:
a. Are determined by civil courts
b. Follow a defined procedure by adjudicating officer
c. Are arbitrary
d. Are set by State Government
225. The comprehensive effect of Section 25 rules is to:
a. Enable Central Government to regulate all matters necessary for implementation of the Act efficiently
b. Exempt private companies from compliance
c. Reduce powers of environmental authorities
d. Allow civil courts to interfere in all matters
226. Clause (ge) ensures transparency in:
a. Laboratory procedures
b. Maintenance of Fund accounts and annual statements
c. Standards of pollutants
d. Penalty procedures
227. Clause (gc) deals with:]
a. Other purposes under Section 16(3)(c)
b. Administration of Fund
c. Laboratory analysis
d. Notice of offences
228. Section 25 rules can cover:
a. Only pollutant standards
b. Almost all procedural, administrative, and technical matters required to implement the Act
c. Only laboratory procedures
d. Only penalty procedures
229. What is the main purpose of Section 26?
a. To empower the Central Government to make rules
b. To ensure rules made under the Act are laid before Parliament for scrutiny
c. To delegate powers to State Governments
d. To allow civil courts to review rules
230. Rules made under the Act must be laid before Parliament:
a. Before they are notified
b. As soon as may be after they are made
c. Only after one year
d. Only if demanded by Parliament
231. The rules must be laid before:
a. The Lok Sabha only
b. The Rajya Sabha only
c. Both Houses of Parliament
d. State Legislatures
232. For how long must the rules be laid before Parliament?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
233. The 30-day period for laying rules may be:
a. Comprised in one session of Parliament
b. Comprised in two or more successive sessions
c. Either a or b
d. Only after receiving Presidential approval
234. If both Houses agree to modify a rule before the expiry of the following session, the rule:
a. Becomes void immediately
b. Continues without change
c. Has effect only in the modified form
d. Requires approval from the Supreme Court
235. If both Houses agree that a rule should not be made, the rule:
a. Continues in force
b. Becomes void
c. Can be enforced by State Governments
d. Requires Presidential assent
236. The modification or annulment of a rule under Section 26 affects:
a. Past actions already done under the rule
b. Only future actions
c. Both past and future actions
d. Only penalties under the rule
237. Section 26 ensures:
a. Parliamentary control over rules made under the Act
b. Judicial review of rules
c. State Governments can override rules
d. Civil courts can enforce rules
238. Rules under Section 26 may be modified or annulled:
a. Only by the President
b. Only by a Supreme Court order
c. By both Houses of Parliament
d. By the Prime Minister
239. The laying of rules before Parliament under Section 26 is a form of:
a. Judicial review
b. Legislative oversight
c. Executive enforcement
d. Administrative delegation
240. If rules are modified by Parliament, their validity for actions already done under the original rule is
a. Invalidated
b. Remains valid
c. Suspended
d. Requires Supreme Court approval
241. Section 26 applies to:
a. Only rules regarding environmental pollutants
b. Every rule made under the Environment (Protection) Act
c. Only rules related to penalties
d. Only rules made for laboratories
242. The “30-day period” mentioned in Section 26:
a. Must always be in one session
b. Can be combined across multiple sessions
c. Starts from the date of parliamentary approval
d. Starts from the date of judicial notification
243. Which of the following statements is TRUE under Section 26?
a. Parliament can annul rules even after several years
b. Past actions done under a rule remain valid even if the rule is annulled
c. Rules cannot be modified
d. Only State Legislatures can modify rules
244. Section 26 provides that rules shall be laid before Parliament:
a. For advisory purposes only
b. For a total period of 30 days
c. Until the Supreme Court approves
d. Only after 60 days
245. Parliamentary scrutiny under Section 26 is applicable to rules made:
a. By the President
b. By State Governments
c. By the Central Government under the Act
d. By private agencies
246. Rules cannot be enforced if:
a. They are not laid before Parliament for 30 days
b. Both Houses annul them before expiry of session
c. They are challenged in civil court
d. They are not published in the Gazette
247. The power to modify or annul rules under Section 26 rests with:
a. Central Government only
b. Both Houses of Parliament
c. Supreme Court
d. State Governments
248. The validity of actions already done under a rule:
a. Can be questioned if the rule is annulled
b. Remains unaffected by annulment or modification
c. Requires approval of Parliament
d. Is determined by State Governments
249. Section 26 ensures:
a. Judicial supremacy over environmental rules
b. Legislative oversight on rules made under the Act
c. Civil court intervention
d. State Government control
250. The term “session or successive sessions” in Section 26 means:
a. The rule must be laid in a single continuous parliamentary session
b. The 30 days can be spread over one or more sessions
c. It applies only to Rajya Sabha sessions
d. It applies only to Lok Sabha sessions
251. If Parliament modifies a rule, it:
a. Becomes effective from the date of modification
b. Invalidates all prior actions
c. Requires presidential approval to be valid
d. Ceases to exist
252. Section 26 ensures transparency in:
a. Executive actions regarding environmental rules
b. Judicial appointments
c. Industrial licensing
d. State Government orders
253. Section 26 is an example of:
a. Non-obstante clause
b. Legislative oversight over executive rule-making
c. Delegation of power to State Government
d. Judicial review mechanism
254. The procedure in Section 26 ensures:
a. Rules cannot be made without parliamentary scrutiny
b. Rules are valid unless annulled or modified by Parliament
c. Rules need judicial approval before enforcement
d. Rules are optional for implementation
255. What happens if both Houses agree before expiry of session that a rule should not be made?
a. The rule continues in force
b. The rule becomes of no effect
c. The rule requires presidential assent
d. Only future actions are affected, past actions are invalid
256. Section 26 applies to rules made under:
a. All environmental laws
b. Only the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
c. Only State pollution control rules
d. Only hazardous substances rules
257. Section 26 provides that modifications or annulments are:
a. Retroactive in all cases
b. Without prejudice to validity of prior actions under the rule
c. Effective only after presidential assent
d. Enforceable by civil courts
258. The laying of rules before Parliament under Section 26 is primarily to ensure:
a. Judicial review
b. Accountability and oversight by the legislature
c. Civil court supervision
d. State Government compliance